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Asked by JudgeGerbilPerson709
A 23-year-old woman comes to the office for a gynecologic examination. This is her first visit, and she has no complaints. She tells you that she has not had a Pap smear in several years. Her menarche was at 12 years, and she has had regular cycles since then. She has had several sexual partners in the past, but has been with her current partner in a monogamous relationship for 1 year. She reports that she had a chlamydial infection that was treated several years ago, but she denies a history of other sexually transmitted diseases. She has never been pregnant. On physical examination, her cervix appears friable with a slight area of ulceration. There are several perineal and vaginal lesions, which appear as small cauliflower-like projections. The results of the Pap smear, which return in 1 week, show a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (mild dysplasia, CIN I). What factor in this patient’s case is most closely correlated with the abnormal finding on the Pap test
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