SOLVED

Question
Answered
Asked by MajorBoulder12941
A 55-year-old patient with a history of recent coronary artery bypass surgery is receiving heparin as part of their post-operative anticoagulation therapy. Several days after starting heparin, the patient’s platelet count begins to drop. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), and what clinical complication is it associated with? Group of answer choices HIT is caused by heparin directly damaging platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia. It is associated with increased bleeding risk. HIT occurs due to heparin promoting platelet aggregation, resulting in reduced platelet count. It is associated with hypertension. HIT results from heparin inhibiting platelet production in the bone marrow, causing thrombocytopenia. It is associated with an increased risk of sepsis. HIT is mediated by the formation of antibodies against heparin-platelet factor 4 (PF4) complexes. These antibodies activate platelets, leading to the formation of thrombi.
SCIENCE
HEALTH SCIENCE
NURSING

******CLICK ORDER NOW BELOW TO GET THE ANSWER TO THIS ASSIGNMENT OR ANY OTHER ASSIGNMENT, DISCUSSION, ESSAY, HOMEWORK OR QUESTION*******."