SOLVED3875

A 38-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of bloody stools. Hospital records show she had a normal colonoscopy 1 month ago. Vital signs and physical exam are within normal limits, and a fecal occult blood test is negative. Her hemoglobin is 13.3 g/dL. External records show the patient has been admitted to other hospitals for the same complaint, all with similar normal workups. What is the best next step in management? A. Recommend follow-up with her primary care provider in 8 weeks B. Prescribe oral risperidone C. Admit to the hospital for further workup D. Accuse the patient of falsifying her symptoms
SCIENCE
HEALTH SCIENCE
NURSING

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