SOLVED1661

A 42-year-old woman with a past psychiatric history of major depressive disorder presents to inpatient services voluntarily with her husband. Her husband states that the patient’s mood symptoms have been constant for the past few years. Subsequently, she has been observed with worsening bizarre behaviors for the past year to the point that the patient is no longer attending to her daily needs. The patient is observed to be internally preoccupied, responding to internal stimuli. The patient also states that she must cleanse herself of all toxins, and her husband notes that she has stopped taking her medications. Additionally, he states that the patient has not had depressive symptoms for the past month. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the primary pharmacologic treatment in this patient at this point? A. Inhibit serotonin reuptake B. Sodium-gated channel blockade C. Dopamine 2 receptor blockade D. Inhibit monoamine oxidase
SCIENCE
HEALTH SCIENCE
NURSING

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