SOLVED1320

A 40-year-old nulliparous woman presents with recent onset of irregular menstrual bleeding. Over the last 6 months, her cyles have lasted between 28 and 38 days. She experiences heavy bleeding, which lasts between 5 and 10 days during each cycle. Prior to this, her menstrual cycles were regular. She passes clots and uses a tampon each hour for the first 2 days of each cycle. She has no significant past medical history. She denies mood swings or autonomic dysfunction. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her BMI is 32. On exam, her uterus is mobile and anteverted. The size is unremarkable, and she has no masses or adnexal tenderness. Her cervix appears normal. HCG is negative. Which of the following should be considered when evaluating and treating this patient? A. Treatment with combination oral contraceptives or progestin. B. Coagulation defects are a common cause of anovulatory bleeding. C. The normal menstrual cycle begins with a surge of luteinizing hormone. D. The corpus luteum does not form in the absence of ovulation.
SCIENCE
HEALTH SCIENCE
NURSING

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