SOLVED4304

A 65-year-old woman reports to the clinic stating she has been experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding over the past 2 months. Her last menstrual period was more than 10 years ago. Her last Pap smear at the clinic 9 months ago was within normal limits (WNL). She is not taking any hormonal products. She is sexually active with occasional complaints of dyspareunia. What is the most appropriate response of the family nurse practitioner at this time? Group of answer choices Order CBC and TSH and repeat Pap smear. Schedule laparoscopy. Schedule endometrial biopsy. Cancel pelvic/transvaginal ultrasonography scheduled
SCIENCE
HEALTH SCIENCE
NURSING

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