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A 23 year old presents complaining of “red blood on the toilet paper after wiping.” He states this has been ongoing for the past day or two. He was constipated for several days prior to the onset of his symptoms and took a few days of Miralax. He denies any blood mixed into his stool. His family history is negative for cancer. Upon exam, you do not notice any external hemorrhoids or anal fissures. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient? Group of answer choices Refer the patient for a colonoscopy Refer the patient to general surgery for rubber band ligation of suspected internal hemorrhoids Reassure the patient that no treatment or follow-up is indicated Hydrocortisone suppository
SCIENCE
HEALTH SCIENCE
NURSING

 
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