SOLVED1986

A 16-year-old male presents with a productive cough, headache, malaise, and arthralgia that started earlier this morning. His mother says she is surprised that her son has flu-like symptoms because he stays home and has unlikely been exposed to the flu virus. She reports that besides the visit with his psychiatric provider a few days ago, her son has not left the house. He has a past medical history of bipolar disorder type II and has been taking lamotrigine for two years. During the recent visit, his psychiatric provider added valproic acid to better control his symptoms. He has no other past medical history and does not take any other medication. The rapid influenza test is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient? A. Discontinue lamotrigine B. Discontinue valproic acid C. NSAID pain-reliever D. Advise patient to rest and stay hydrated
SCIENCE
HEALTH SCIENCE
NURSING

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