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Asked by Nonamegrave
2. A 35-year-old African American female comes to the clinic complaining of pelvic pain that started as intermittent, but now is almost constant. She also complains of irregular vaginal bleeding/spotting that has occurred in between her monthly menses for the last six months. She has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Her vital signs (VS) and BMI are all within normal limits (WNL), but upon physical examination, you palpate a firm, raised area on her uterus. You note no cervical motion tenderness (CMT), no adnexal tenderness (AT), and no other abnormalities. She is G2 P2 with both normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries (NSVD) 10 and 8 years ago.
What are your differential and presumptive diagnoses?
Explain the pathophysiology of your presumptive diagnosis.
What test(s) will you order to confirm the diagnosis?
What is your plan of care for this patient?
SCIENCE
HEALTH SCIENCE
NURSING
NURS 665
